17. The oxo and amino groups of purines and pyrimidines exhibit
(A) lactam-lactim tautomerism
(B) keto-enol tautomerism
(C) amide-imidic acid tautomerism
(D) amine-imine tautomerism
(E) all are right.

複選題18. Which of the following characteristics of histones are right? (A) H1 histones are the ones least tightly bound to chromatin (B) H3 and H4 histones form a tetramer containing two molecules of each (H3-H4)2 (C) H2A and H2B histones form dimers (H2A-H2B). (D) H2A, H2B, H3, and H4 are core histones of nucleosomes (E) H1, H2, H3, and H4 histones associate to form the histone octamer.

19. During DNA synthesis, (A) The nascent DNA is always synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction, as DNA polymerases can add a nucleotide only to the 3' end of a DNA strand (B) The initiation of DNA synthesis upon a primer of DNA and the subsequent attachment of the second deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate (C) On the lagging (forward) strand, the DNA is synthesized continuously (D) On the leading (retrograde) strand, the DNA is synthesized in short (1-5 kb) fragments, the so-called Okazaki fragments (E) An enzyme capable of polymerizing DNA in the 3' to 5' direction does not exist in any organism.

20. During cell cycle, (A) The cyclins are a family of proteins whose concentration increases and decreases throughout the cell cycle (B) If DNA damage is detected in either the G1 or the G2 phase of the cell cycle, cells still can progress through the M phase of the cycle. (C) Different cyclin-dependent protein kinases (CDKs) that phosphorylate substrates essential for progression through the cell cycle (D) DNA synthesis occurs during the GO phase of the cell cycle (E) If DNA damage cannot be repaired, such cells undergo programmed cell death.

21. Gene transcription is a multi-step process. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) NOT correct? (A) Repressors direct histone deacetylation at specific genes thereby prevent the transcriptions of genes (B) Activators are composed of DNA binding domain and transactivating domain, which directs histone acetylation or other co-activators to promote gene transcriptions. (C) Purified RNA polymerase II cannot initiate gene transcription without the assistance from general transcription factors that position RNA polymerase II at the start site (D) Enhancers are the transcription-control regions on the genomic DNA. Enhancers contain binding sites for transcription factors (E) None of the above is correct

22. Pre-mRNA is subjective to processing after transcription. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct? (A) The 5' cap is added to nascent RNA shortly after transcription initiation. Capping could promote transcription elongation by stimulating phosphorylation of RNA polymerase C-terminal domain (B) Alternative splicing is one of the processing mechanisms. It reduces the number of final protein products encoded by a given region of genomic DNA. (C) Polyadenylation is a process of adding 100-250 adenines at the end of transcripts. It helps to stabilize mature (processed) mRNAs (D) RNA splicing involves two transesterification reactions, which produce excised lariant intron and spliced exons. (E) Splicing involves protein machineries called spliceosome to make the cut and ligation.

23. Which of the following processes regulate the efficient translation of mRNA into protein (A) micro-RNA (B) cytoplasmic polyadenylation of mRNA (C) phosphorylation of 4E-BPs by mTOR (D) nonsense-mediated decay (NMD) that cause rapid degradation of mRNA with a stop codon before the last splice junction. (E) None of above

24. Genome contains not only genes encoding functional proteins but also (A) LTR retrotransposons (B) DNA transposons (C) None-LTR retrotransposons, such as LINEs and SINEs in mammalian genomes (D) regions encoding long non-coding RNA (E) pseudogene sequences

25. Gene targeting technologies have many applications, including (A) inactivation of a gene locus by targeting gene disruption. (B) replacing a wild type allele of a gene at one chromosome with a desirable mutant allele. (C) to fuse a green fluorescent protein DNA sequence in frame after a gene of interest. The expression of resulting GFP fusion protein could be used to study how the gene of interest is regulated in vivo. (D) to express Cre recombinase in a tissue specific manner by inserting Cre recombinase coding sequence downstream to a tissue specific enhancer sequence in genome (E) none of above

26. The functionality of a protein is closely related to its 3D conformation. The 3D structure of a protein can be deduced by (A) X-ray crystallography of a protein sample (B) NMR spectroscope (C) Yeast two hybrid system (D) Cryoelectron microscopy (Cryo-EM) (E) surface plasmon resonance

27. Modifications of histone tails control chromatin configurations and functions. Which of the following statement(s) about histone modifications is/are correct? (A) Histone H3 and H4 can be acetylated at multiple lysine sites (B) lysine acetylations of Histone H3 and H4 correlate with open chromatin configuration called euchromatin and favor active gene transcription. (C) Histone H3 and H4 can be mone-, di-, or tri-methylated at multiple lysine sites (D) Methylations of histone tails always associate with close chromatin configuration (E) Methylations of histone tails always result in gene silencing. Methylations of histone tails are seen in the promoter and gene body regions of genes that are no longer active in differentiated cells during development.

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