112年 - [無官方正解]112 國立嘉義大學_轉學生招生考試試題_獸醫學系：生物學#143943

1. What tool or resource is useful for identifying previously unknown protein-coding genes in a genomic DNA sequence? (A) DNA microarrays (B) software that searches for translational start and stop signals (C) plasmids (D) protein structure database (E) All of the listed responses are correct.

2. The source of phosphate for a phosphorylation cascade is (A) protein kinase (B) ATP (C) GTP (D) protein phosphatase (E) cAMP

3. The unwinding of DNA at the replication fork causes twisting and strain in the DNA ahead of the fork, which is relieved by an enzyme called __________. (A) relievase (B) ligase (C) helicase (D) topoisomerase (E) primase

4. Species A and species B are in the same phylum. Species A and species C, but not species B, are in the same order. From this information you can conclude that (A) all three species are not members of the same phylum (B) species C could be in the same class as species A and B (C) all three species are members of the same genus (D) species B and species C share a less recent ancestor than do species A and B (E) species A and species B are in the same family

5. What is the role of a second messenger in hormone action? (A) It informs a gland as to whether its hormones are having an effect. (B) It signals a cell to secrete a hormone. (C) It relays a hormone's message inside a target cell. (D) It stops hormone action when it is no longer needed. (E) All of the listed responses are correct.

6. What is the function of hemagglutinin in the influenza virus? (A) Hemagglutinin is the name of the reverse transcriptase enzyme in the influenza virus. (B) Hemagglutinin is involved in assembling the membrane envelope that the virus uses as a cloak when it leaves an infected cell. (C) Hemagglutinin is part of the protein capsid of the influenza virus. (D) Hemagglutinin helps release new viruses from infected cells. (E) Hemagglutinin is the protein that helps the influenza virus attach to host cells.

7. In an experiment, a microbiologist put equal numbers of each of the following organisms into a flask of sterile broth, consisting mostly of sugar and a few amino acids. She then placed the flask in the dark. Which of the organisms would be most likely to survive? (A) photoheterotrophs (B) photoautotrophs (C) chemoheterotrophic bacteria (D) cyanobacteria (E) thermoacidophilic bacteria

8. Lipids differ from other large biological molecules in that they (A) do not contain carbon (B) are much larger (C) do not contain nitrogen and phosphorus atoms (D) do not have specific shapes (E) are not truly polymers

9. Pharmaceutical companies are selling billions of dollars' worth of single-enantiomer drugs. Why might it be important to use only one form of an enantiomer? (A) One enantiomer may provide an effective treatment whereas the other may be ineffective or even toxic. (B) It is cheaper to manufacture only one of the enantiomers. (C) The left-handed version of the enantiomer is always the effective one. (D) It is not important. Both enantiomers will be equally effective. (E) All of the listed responses are true.

10. Despite long days grazing on tall grasses, several of the cattle released into a new pasture have oddly shaped or broken legs and often lay down. These cattle might be suffering from __________. (A) carbohydrate deficiency (B) fat deficiency (C) vitamin A deficiency (D) phosphorus deficiency (E) undernutrition

11. If a modified form of GTP that CANNOT be enzymatically converted to GDP were added to a culture of cells, the likely result would be (A) the inhibition of pathways stimulated by tyrosine-kinase receptors (B) the inactivation of G-protein-coupled signaling pathways (C) the inactivation of ligand-gated ion channels (D) receptor tyrosine kinases would be stimulated by the additional phosphate groups present in the modified GTP (E) that the activated G proteins would remain locked in the "on" position, transmitting signal even in the absence of a signaling molecule

12. What is the source of the hormones that, when suddenly absent, are directly responsible for the onset of menstruation? (A) vestibular (Bartholin's) glands (B) corpus luteum (C) hypothalamus (D) pituitary (E) ovarian follicle

13. In the absence of meiosis and sexual reproduction, what general process allows genetic recombination among prokaryotes? (A) chemoautotrophy (B) mutation (C) horizontal gene transfer (D) endospore formation (E) evolution

14. The centromere is a region in which (A) chromosomes become aligned during metaphase (B) the chromosomes are connected to the cell plate in metaphase (C) microtubules are fastened to the centrioles during anaphase (D) sister chromatids are attached to one another in prophase (E) the new cell plate forms in telophase

15. In which animal does the circulatory system include a heart and a system of closed vessels? (A) fish (B) crayfish (C) beetle (D) sea anemone (E) sponge

16. Which set of enzymes is involved in nucleotide excision repair? (A) nuclease, DNA polymerase, and ligase (B) hydrolase, nuclease, and ligase (C) DNA polymerase, helicase, primase (D) nuclease, DNA polymerase, primase (E) ligase, nuclease, and primase

17. When goats were introduced to an island off the California coast, the goats inhabited the same areas and ate the same plants as the native deer. The deer population dwindled and finally disappeared. This is an example of (A) a food chain (B) succession (C) coevolution (D) competitive exclusion (E) commensalism

18. Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific yew tree. In animal cells, Taxol disrupts microtubule formation by binding to microtubules and accelerating their assembly from the protein precursor tubulin. Surprisingly, this stops mitosis. Specifically, Taxol must affect (A) the formation of the mitotic spindle. (B) chromatid assembly. (C) anaphase. (D) the S phase of the cell cycle. (E) formation of the centrioles.

19. Restriction enzymes help defend bacteria against viral infections by (A) preventing entry of the viral DNA into the cell (B) cutting viral DNA once it has entered the cell (C) preventing the binding of the virus to the cell surface (D) preventing integration of the viral genome into the host chromosome (E) preventing the synthesis of viral capsomeres in the cell

20. An Okazaki fragment has which of the following arrangements? (A) primase, polymerase, ligase (B) 3' RNA nucleotides, DNA nucleotides 5' (C) 5' DNA to 3' (D) DNA polymerase I, DNA polymerase III (E) 5' RNA nucleotides, DNA nucleotides 3'

21. In sexually reproducing species, the chromosome number remains stable over time because __________ and __________ always alternate. (A) meiosis ... interphase (B) meiosis ... fertilization (C) mitosis ... fertilization (D) meiosis ... mitosis (E) meiosis I ... meiosis II

22. In a series of immune system experiments, the thymus glands were removed from baby mice. Which of the following would you predict as a likely result? (A) The mice never developed cancerous tumors. (B) The mice readily accepted tissue transplants. (C) The mice were unable to produce an inflammatory response. (D) The mice suffered from numerous allergies. (E) The mice suffered from autoimmune diseases.

23. A species of malaria-carrying mosquito lives in a forest in which two species of monkeys, A and B, coexist. Species A is immune to malaria, but species B is not. The malaria-carrying mosquito is the chief food for a particular kind of bird in the forest. If all these birds were suddenly eliminated by hunters, which of the following would be an immediately observable consequence? (A) emergence of malaria-resistant strains in monkey species B. (B) emergence of malaria-sensitive strains in monkey species A. (C) increased mortality in monkey species B. (D) increased mortality (death rat( E ) in monkey species A. (E) increased mortality in the malaria-carrying mosquitoes.

24. Gene therapy involves __________. (A) no serious ethical questions. (B) replacing organs affected with genetic disorders by transplants (C) allowing individuals to follow the natural progression of a genetic disorder, accompanied by psychological counseling, then drug treatment when the condition becomes life-threatening. (D) adding a functioning version of a defective gene to the cells of an individual. (E) All of the listed responses are correct.

25. You have inserted the gene for human growth factor into the E. coli lactose operon, replacing the structural genes with the gene for human growth factor. What substance must you add to your culture of bacteria to cause them to produce human growth factor for you? (A) human growth factor (B) transcription factors (C) operator protein (D) allolactose (E) repressor protein

26. Which of the following is a problem with the long-term use of glucocorticoids, such as cortisone, to treat inflammation? (A) abnormal blood clotting, which leads to excessive bruising (B) low blood glucose levels (C) suppression of the immune system (D) sleeplessness (E) long-term elevated blood pressure

27. Which of the following best describes siRNA? (A) a molecule, known as Dicer, that can degrade other mRNA sequences (B) a portion of rRNA that allows it to bind to several ribosomal proteins in forming large or small subunits (C) a single-stranded RNA that can, where it has internal complementary base pairs, fold into cloverleaf patterns (D) a double-stranded RNA that is formed by cleavage of hairpin loops in a larger precursor (E) a short double-stranded RNA, one of whose strands can complement and inactivate a sequence of mRNA

28. What are single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) (A) are two base-pair variations in the genomes of the human population (B) are genetic markers used to study the genetic basis for disease (C) are large nucleotide differences among individuals located in coding and non-coding sequences in the genome (D) can not be the molecular basis for different alleles (E) All of the listed responses are correct.

29. The most effective molecule for nitrogenous waste disposal in desert animals would be __________. (A) uric acid because it requires very little water for excretion (B) ammonia because it is the most soluble of all the nitrogen-containing metabolic waste products (C) ammonia because it uses less energy to make than uric acid or urea (D) urea because it is less toxic than uric acid (E) uric acid because it takes less energy to make than urea

30. Prions are __________ that are thought to cause disease by __________. (A) DNA molecules ... jumping around the genome and mutating genes (B) mutant DNA molecules ... encoding toxic proteins (C) abnormally shaped proteins ... inducing similar but normally shaped proteins in the brain to adopt the abnormal form (D) RNA molecules ... encoding toxic proteins (E) an abnormal type of capsid ... dramatically enhancing the rate of viral infection

31. In fungi, the function of the mycelium is (A) defense (B) dispersal to distant habitats (C) surviving a period of food shortage (D) obtaining food (E) movement

32. Ancient cyanobacteria were very important in the history of life because they (A) were the first truly multicellular organisms (B) were probably the first organisms to live on Earth (C) are the oldest known prokaryotes (D) extracted heat from the atmosphere, cooling Earth (E) produced atmospheric oxygen

33. The avian flu virus H5N1 is considered a greater long-term threat than the swine flu virus H1N1 because __________. (A) it has a significantly higher mortality rate (B) H5N1 has a greater tendency to become a prophage (C) more people eat chicken meat than pork (D) it is more readily transmitted between human hosts (E) H5N1 is a DNA virus and the similarity of genome chemistry can promote greater virulence and therefore the likelihood of death in humans.

34. To repair a thymine dimer by nucleotide excision repair, in which order do the necessary enzymes act? (A) endonuclease, DNA polymerase I, DNA ligase (B) exonuclease, DNA polymerase III, RNA primase (C) DNA ligase, nuclease, helicase (D) helicase, DNA polymerase I, DNA ligase (E) DNA polymerase I, DNA polymerase III, DNA ligase

35. Which of the following best illustrates homeostasis? (A) All organs are composed of the same four kinds of tissue. (B) Elevated blood CO2 stimulates faster breathing, which rids the body of excess CO2. (C) All the cells in the body have much the same chemical composition. (D) The lung has a large surface for exchange of gases. (E) DNA stores the genetic information in a cell.

36. A chemist has discovered a drug that blocks phosphoglucoisomerase, an enzyme that catalyzes the second reaction in glycolysis. He wants to use the drug to kill bacteria in people with infections. However, he cannot do this because (A) glycolysis can occur without the action of enzymes (B) human cells must also perform glycolysis; the drug might also poison them (C) this step in the pathway of glycolysis can be skipped in bacteria, but not in humans (D) glycolysis produces so little ATP that the drug will have little effect (E) bacteria are prokaryotes; they usually do not need to perform glycolysis

37. When searching for a donor for an organ transplant, doctors try to match the __________ of the donor and recipient as closely as possible. (A) cytokines (B) leukocytes (C) blood type (D) MHC proteins (E) antibodies

38. Which of the following best describes the significance of the TATA box in eukaryotic promoters? (A) Its significance has not yet been determined. (B) It sets the reading frame of the mRNA. (C) It is the recognition site for a specific transcription factor. (D) It is the recognition site for ribosomal binding. (E) It prevents supercoiling of the DNA near the start site.

39. Which of the following is a characteristic of the nervous system but not the endocrine system? (A) Communication usually involves more than one type of signal. (B) Signals generally coordinate gradual changes that affect the entire body. (C) The signal is broadcast throughout the body. (D) Signals are often long-lasting. (E) Signals travel slowly, often taking many seconds to have an effect.

40. Because eukaryotic genes contain introns, their transcripts cannot be translated by bacteria, which lack RNA-splicing machinery. But if you want to engineer a bacterium to produce a eukaryotic protein, you can synthesize a gene without introns. A good way to do this is to (A) use a nucleic acid probe to find a gene without introns (B) work backward from mRNA to make a version of the gene without introns (C) alter the bacteria so that they can splice RNA (D) use a restriction enzyme to remove introns from the gene (E) use a phage to insert the desired gene into a bacterium

41. X-linked genes differ from Y-linked genes in which of the following ways? (A) Sons and daughters have equal probabilities in inheriting a recessive allele of an X-linked gene from their mother, but only sons can inherit rare Y-linked genetic disorders from their father. (B) Only X-linked genes are technically sex-linked because Y-linked genes affect characteristics unrelated to sex. (C) Genes on the X chromosome are expressed only in females, and genes on the Y chromosome are expressed only in males. (D) Sons and daughters can inherit alleles of X-linked genes from fathers proportionally but only sons inherit alleles of Y-linked genes from their fathers. (E) Though most X-linked genes determine sex, Y-linked genes control for characters unrelated to sex.

42. Apoptosis involves all but which of the following? (A) cell-signaling pathways (B) digestion of cellular contents by scavenger cells (C) activation of cellular enzymes (D) fragmentation of the DNA (E) lysis of the cell

43. How do trypanosomes withstand the attack of a host's immune system? (A) The molecular composition of their surface changes continually. (B) They reproduce so fast that they can compensate for the death rate caused by the immune system. (C) They live only in the cerebrospinal fluid, where the immune system can't reach them. (D) They specifically poison helper T cells. (E) All of the listed responses are correct.

44. What is the main abiotic reservoir for elements, such as calcium and phosphorus, involved in local biogeochemical cycles? (A) oceans. (B) wind. (C) the atmosphere. (D) rivers. (E) soil.

45. B cells have antigen receptors that bind to antigens that are either freely dissolved or present on the surface of invading/foreign cells. T cells have antigen receptors that (A) bind only to antigens present on the surface of the invading/foreign cells. (B) bind to antigens that are either freely dissolved or present on the surface of invading/foreign cells. (C) bind only to freely dissolved antigens in the plasma. (D) are active only in lymph nodes. (E) bind to antigen fragments presented on major histocompatability complexes by host cells.

46. If microorganisms penetrate the innate defenses, an inflammatory response may be initiated by the __________. (A) release of interferon by infected cells (B) discharge of cytokines from neutrophils (C) increased blood flow to an infected or injured area (D) accumulation of phagocytes in an injured area (E) release of chemicals such as histamine by mast cells

47. Which class of glial cells contribute most to the formation of the blood-brain barrier? (A) Schwann cells (B)ependymal cells (C)neurons (D)astrocytes (E)radial glia

48. The cell walls of fungal cells are composed of _____. (A) lignin (B) chitin (C) pectin (D) peptidoglycan (E) cellulose

49. Which of the following classes of immunoglobins crosses the placenta and confers passive immunity to the fetus? (A) IgG (B) IgD (C) IgA (D) IgE (E) IgM

50. New flu shots are needed every year to protect against infection because of (A) a direct attack on the immune system (B) expiration (C) antigenic variation (D) latency (E) none of the listed reasons